What is a rhema word? Is this just some charismatic curch concept or is it scriptural?
It’s scriptural.
The Bible is written in 2 languages originally. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew.
The New Testament was written in Greek. Why? Because the OT was given to the Jews in order to establish a covenant people, who would then show the whole world who God was…that’s why, : )
The NT was written in Greek because the whole world was under Greek speaking Roman control when it was written and it shows that the whole word now was given to the whole world…The Jews first, then to the believing Jews and gentiles.
Around 260 years before Jesus came to us the first time, the OT had already been translated into Greek, which is the Septuagint. Jesus quoted not from the Hebrew original but from the Septuagint!!! Fascinating!
Why? Because now, God’s message has come to the whole world and Rome was basically the whole known world then.
The word used in the OT for what English speaking people would use as “word” is the same through out the entire OT. It is “dabar”. It means speech. Communication. It has no further meaning which is also extremely fascinating.
Why?
It’s because The Holy Spirit was given in an indwelling way after the ascension of Jesus and the word “word” now has many meanings.
Genesis 1 we see that God spoke the world into existence.
In John we see Jesus Christ is the “word” and He created everything that there is. He is God, Creator God. But the word used here for “word” is not “dabar” or it’s equivalent. It is rather, “Logos”. It means, the expression of a thought and not just an object.
So we see that Jesus is the word made flesh who walked among us. And that word spoke everything into being because He is God. Paul says same thing in Collosians.
So we see in the NT that when “word” is used and Logos is the Greek word used, it refers to just this, the expression of God’s word.
Then there is “Rhema”. This greek word is used when we see “word” used to differentiate between the actual expression of the written word of God, and a different kind of communication from The Holy Spirit who is God, to the individual.
It will never contradict the “dabar”, word or the “logos” word. But it will take that part of the written word of God and speak it in a very specific way to an individual who is reading His word.
It happens constantly to the one seeking God with their whole hearts. Here is an example:
I was praying and weeping one day for my children’s salvation if they were not really saved yet, and or for their sold out walk with Jesus if they were. God interrupted me and told me clearly to get up and stop crying and go pick up my Bible and read where I left off in Jeremiah the day before.
I did and I received a clear word, “rhema” from God in direct answer to my prayer, He does this constantly.
I read, Jeremiah 31:16-17. “Thus says the LORD. Refrain your voice from weeping and your eyes from tears. For your work will be rewarded says the LORD. They shall come again from the land of the enemy. There is hope in your end, says the LORD, and your children shall come again to their own border”.
I knew it would come to pass and a few years later it did!
This is a “rhema” word.
I am so sad when I hear my favorite teachers err so greatly here. They joke about this work of God and attribute the work of the Spirit to nonsense. But they are ignorant here. God does speak using His word with a very direct message to believers.
Now can we apply Jeremiah 31:16-17, or any other verse, as speaking to Egypt instead? To another group instead. NO!! Scripture is not up for private interpretation. We can’t say, oh you see Israel as being spoken to here but I see He is speaking to Egypt, or whomever. It has one correct contextual meaning and that never changes and can’t be one meaning to you and another to me. That would be private interpretation..wrong. It was to Israel as it was spoken historically. Period.
However, God can take that exact verse and tell a believer reading it that this message or arrangement of words is a private message to them and to apply it to their lives.
…not as we wish, but as the Spirit miraculously speaks it, as I gave the example. It doesn’t contradict or give another contextual meaning to the verse. It just says by the Spirit, Yes, I am talking to you right now.
Now it is not a ‘rhema” word if I just read it in passing and said….God said my children would return to their own border!!! Yay!
NO! That is a private interpretation. He might not be saying that to you. You have to know because He has made you know through miraculous events like I described. The words were exact and direct and detailed answers to my exact prayer at that exact moment and I knew He was about to answer that prayer with His exact words when I did just what He told me to do.
Now Vines says it beautifully: loose quote… the difference in the NT between logos and rhema is that a rhema refers to personal instruction by the Spirit. He brings the word of God to mind in time of need with a personal message.
This is a glorious “rhema” word from God.
Hallelujah! Jesus Christ be praised!